How Do I Study For A Law School Admissions Test?

Preparing for the Law School Admission Test (LSAT) requires a comprehensive approach encompassing various study methods. Firstly, familiarisation with the LSAT format and question types is crucial. Practice questions and sample tests, such as the Example LSAT Questions, provide an invaluable foundation for understanding the Logical Reasoning, Reading Comprehension, and Analytical Reasoning sections.

Secondly, developing strong analytical and critical thinking skills is essential. Logical Reasoning questions assess your ability to analyze arguments and identify logical fallacies. Reading Comprehension questions test your understanding of complex passages and ability to draw inferences. Analytical Reasoning questions require you to solve puzzles based on rules and relationships.

Finally, time management is a key factor in LSAT success. Practice timed sections and full-length tests to enhance your speed and efficiency in answering questions. Additionally, seek professional guidance from tutors or online courses to refine your study techniques and gain valuable insights.

What Is A Typical LSAT Question?

A typical LSAT question is designed to assess a specific skill or knowledge area that is considered essential for success in law school. For example, in the Logical Reasoning section, you might encounter a question that presents a short argument or passage followed by a question about the argument's structure, validity, or assumptions. The question may require you to identify a logical fallacy, draw an inference, or evaluate the strength of the argument. In the Reading Comprehension section, you will be given a passage of text and asked to answer questions about the passage's main idea, supporting evidence, or author's purpose. The questions may test your ability to understand complex language, make inferences, and identify the author's tone or bias.

Finally, the Analytical Reasoning section presents you with a set of rules or relationships and asks you to solve a puzzle based on those rules. The questions may require you to identify patterns, draw inferences, or make deductions. Overall, LSAT questions are designed to be challenging and thought-provoking, and they require you to apply your critical thinking, analytical reasoning, and reading comprehension skills.

Is A 135 On the LSAT Bad?

Whether a 135 on the LSAT is considered bad depends on your individual goals and aspirations. On a scale of 120 to 180, a 13 5 is below the median score of 150. This means that half of all test takers score higher than 135. If your goal is to attend a top-tier law school, a 135 may not be competitive. The median LSAT scores at the top 14 law schools in the United States range from 162 to 173.

However, if you are applying to a less competitive law school or are willing to consider other factors, such as your GPA, personal statement, and work experience, a 135 may still be a viable option. Ultimately, the best way to determine if a 135 is a good score for you is to research the LSAT score ranges of the law schools you are interested in and to consider your own individual circumstances.

Is The LSAT A Hard Exam?

The LSAT is widely regarded as a challenging exam, and for good reason. It is designed to assess the critical thinking, analytical reasoning, and reading comprehension skills that are essential for success in law school.

The LSAT consists of three main sections:

Logical Reasoning: This section presents you with short arguments or passages and asks you to identify their structure, validity, and assumptions.
Reading Comprehension: This section presents you with passages of text and asks you to answer questions about the passage's main idea, supporting evidence, and author's purpose.
Analytical Reasoning: This section presents you with a set of rules or relationships and asks you to solve a puzzle based on those rules.

Each section is timed, and the questions are designed to be challenging and thought-provoking. Many people find the LSAT to be a difficult exam, and it is important to prepare thoroughly if you want to achieve a high score.

However, it is important to remember that the LSAT is not impossible. With hard work and dedication, you can develop the skills necessary to succeed on the exam.

What is The Average Score On the Law School Admission Test?

The average score on the Law School Admission Test (LSAT) varies slightly from year to year. In recent years, the average score has been around 150 on a scale of 120 to 180.

The LSAT is divided into three sections: Logical Reasoning, Reading Comprehension, and Analytical Reasoning. Each section is scored on a scale of 1 to 18, and the total score is the sum of the three section scores.

The average score on each section is as follows:

Logical Reasoning: 15.1
Reading Comprehension: 14.9
Analytical Reasoning: 15.2

It is important to note that the average score is just that - an average. Some people will score higher than the average, and some people will score lower. If you are planning to take the LSAT, it is important to set a realistic goal for your score. You should aim to score higher than the average, but you should also be aware that a score below the average does not necessarily mean that you will not be admitted to law school.

How Many Months To Study For LSAT?

The amount of time you need to study for the LSAT depends on a number of factors, including your starting score, your target score, and your study habits. If you are starting from scratch, you should plan to study for at least six months. This will give you enough time to learn the material, develop your skills, and take practice tests. If you have a strong academic background and are already familiar with the LSAT material, you may be able to study for a shorter period of time. However, it is still important to give yourself enough time to practice and to take practice tests. No matter how much time you have to study, it is important to create a study schedule and stick to it. You should also make sure to use high-quality study materials, such as the Law School Admission Council's (LSAC) official LSAT prep materials.

Here is a suggested study schedule for the LSAT:

Months 1-3: Focus on learning the basics of the LSAT and developing your skills in Logical Reasoning, Reading Comprehension, and Analytical Reasoning.
Months 4-6: Continue to practice your skills and start taking practice tests. Identify your strengths and weaknesses, and focus on improving your weaker areas.
Months 7-8: Take more practice tests and fine-tune your test-taking strategies. Make sure to review your practice tests carefully and learn from your mistakes.

Remember, the key to success on the LSAT is to be prepared. By giving yourself enough time to study and practice, you can increase your chances of achieving your target score.

What Is The Hardest Portion Of the LSAT?

The hardest portion of the LSAT is a matter of opinion, but many people find the Logical Reasoning section to be the most challenging. Logical Reasoning questions require you to analyze arguments and identify their structure , validity, and assumptions. These questions can be difficult because they require you to think critically and to be able to identify logical fallacies.

Reading Comprehension questions can also be challenging, especially if you are not a strong reader. These questions require you to read a passage of text and answer questions about the passage's main idea, supporting evidence, and author's purpose.

Analytical Reasoning questions are generally considered to be the easiest section of the LSAT. However, these questions can still be challenging if you are not familiar with the different types of Analytical Reasoning questions and how to solve them.

Ultimately, the hardest portion of the LSAT will vary depending on your individual strengths and weaknesses. However, it is important to be prepared for all three sections of the exam.

Is There Math On The LSAT?

There is no math on the LSAT in the traditional sense. However, some of the questions on the Analytical Reasoning section require you to use basic math skills, such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division.

For example, you may be given a question that asks you to determine the number of people who attended a meeting based on the information provided in a table or graph. Or, you may be given a question that asks you to calculate the average of a set of numbers.

The math skills required for the LSAT are very basic, and you should be able to answer the questions without using a calculator. If you are not comfortable with basic math, you may want to brush up on your skills before taking the LSAT. However, you should not spend too much time studying math for the LSAT. The Analytical Reasoning section is only one-third of the exam, and the math skills required are very basic.

How Many Times Can I Take The LSAT?

You can take the LSAT up to three times in a single testing year, and you can take the exam a maximum of five times total. A testing year runs from June 1st to May 31st of the following year. So, if you take the LSAT in June, you can take it again in September, October, November, and December of that same year. You can also take the LSAT in January, February, March, April, and May of the following year. However, these test dates are considered to be part of the next testing year.

If you take the LSAT more than three times in a single testing year, your scores from the additional administrations will be canceled. There is no limit to the number of times you can take the LSAT over your lifetime. However, law schools will only consider your highest score when making admissions decisions. It is important to note that some law schools may have their own policies regarding the number of times you can take the LSAT. Be sure to check with the law schools you are interested in to learn about their policies.

Is the LSAT Exam Just Multiple Choice?

The LSAT is primarily a multiple-choice exam. However, there is one section of the exam, the Writing Sample, that requires you to write a short essay.

The Writing Sample is not scored, but it is sent to law schools along with your LSAT score report. Law schools may use the Writing Sample to evaluate your writing skills and your ability to think critically and communicate your ideas effectively.

The other three sections of the LSAT—Logical Reasoning, Reading Comprehension, and Analytical Reasoning—are all multiple-choice. Each section contains 25-27 questions, and you have 35 minutes to complete each section.

The multiple-choice questions on the LSAT are designed to test your critical thinking, analytical reasoning, and reading comprehension skills. The questions are challenging, but they are also fair. If you have prepared adequately for the LSAT, you should be able to answer the questions accurately.

What Is An OK score on the LSAT?

An "OK" score on the LSAT depends on your individual goals and aspirations. If your goal is to attend a top-tier law school, an OK score would be in the 1 60s. The median LSAT score at the top 14 law schools in the United States ranges from 162 to 173. If you are applying to a less competitive law school, an OK score would be in the 150s. The median LSAT score at the top 50 law schools in the United States ranges from 153 to 161.

However, it is important to note that LSAT scores are just one factor that law schools consider when making admissions decisions. Law schools also consider your GPA, personal statement, letters of recommendation, and work experience. If you have a strong GPA and other factors, you may be able to get into a good law school even with an OK LSAT score.

Can You Use A Calculator On the LSAT?

You cannot use a calculator on the LSAT. The LSAT is designed to test your critical thinking, analytical reasoning, and reading comprehension skills. These skills are not dependent on your ability to use a calculator. In fact, using a calculator on the LSAT could actually hinder your performance. The LSAT is a timed exam, and you need to be able to answer the questions quickly and efficiently. If you are struggling with the math on the LSAT , you should focus on improving your basic math skills. You can do this by taking a math class, practicing math problems, or using online math resources. However, you should not spend too much time studying math for the LSAT. The Analytical Reasoning section is only one-third of the exam, and the math skills required are very basic.

How Many Times Can I Take the LSAT?

You can take the LSAT up to three times in a single testing year, and a maximum of five times overall. A testing year runs from June 1st to May 31st of the following year. So, if you take the LSAT in June, you can take it again in September, October, November, and December of that same year. You can also take the LSAT in January, February, March, April, and May of the following year.

However, these test dates are considered to be part of the next testing year. If you take the LSAT more than three times in a single testing year, your scores from the additional administrations will be cancelled. There is no limit to the number of times you can take the LSAT over your lifetime. However, law schools will only consider your highest score when making admissions decisions. It is important to note that some law schools may have their own policies regarding the number of times you can take the LSAT. Be sure to check with the law schools you are interested in to learn about their policies.

How To Prep For A Law School Exam?

Preparing for a law school exam requires a comprehensive approach that encompasses effective study habits and techniques. Firstly, it is crucial to understand the course material thoroughly. This involves attending lectures, taking detailed notes, and actively participating in class discussions.

Secondly, creating a structured study schedule is essential. Allocate specific time slots for studying, and adhere to them as much as possible. Breaking down the material into smaller chunks can make it more manageable.

Active recall is a powerful study technique. Regularly test yourself on the material by reciting it from memory or completing practice questions. This helps solidify your understanding and identify areas that need further attention. Additionally, forming study groups with peers can be beneficial. Discussing concepts, quizzing each other, and sharing insights can enhance comprehension and retention.

Finally, taking care of your well-being is paramount. Ensure you get adequate sleep, maintain a healthy diet, and engage in regular exercise. A clear and focused mind is essential for effective studying.

How Much Does The LSAT Prep Course Cost?

The cost of an LSAT prep course varies depending on the provider, the type of course, and the level of support offered. In-person courses typically range from £500 to £2,000, while online courses can cost between £200 and £1,000. Self-study materials, such as books and online resources, are generally more affordable, costing around £100 to £300.

Some factors that affect the cost of an LSAT prep course include:

Duration: Longer courses with more sessions tend to be more expensive.
Class size: Smaller, more personalized classes often come with a higher price tag.
Instructor experience: Courses taught by experienced instructors with proven track records may be more costly.
Materials: Courses that provide comprehensive study materials, such as practice tests and workbooks, are typically more expensive.

It's important to research and compare different LSAT prep course options to find one that fits your budget and learning style.

How Many Questions Wrong Is A 160 on the LSAT?

The number of questions you can get wrong on the LSAT and still score a 160 depends on your performance on each section of the exam. The LSAT is scored on a scale of 120 to 180, with 180 being a perfect score. The test consists of three sections: Logical Reasoning, Reading Comprehension, and Analytical Reasoning. To score a 160, you need to answer approximately 70% of the questions correctly.

Here is a breakdown of the number of questions you can get wrong in each section and still score a 160:

Logical Reasoning: You can get 6-7 questions wrong.
Reading Comprehension: You can get 5-6 questions wrong.
Analytical Reasoning: You can get 3-4 questions wrong.

It is important to note that this is just an approximation. The actual number of questions you can get wrong and still score a 160 may vary slightly depending on the difficulty of the exam.

What Is A Sufficient Question On The LSAT?

A sufficient question on the LSAT is one that provides all of the information necessary to answer the question correctly, without any extraneous or irrelevant information. Sufficient questions are typically straightforward and easy to understand. They may contain a short passage of text, a diagram, or a set of rules, followed by a question that asks you to draw a conclusion, make an inference, or solve a problem.

Here is an example of a sufficient question from the Logical Reasoning section of the LSAT:

All dogs are mammals.

Some mammals are cats.

Therefore, some dogs are cats.

This question is sufficient because it provides all of the information necessary to determine whether the conclusion is true or false. The first premise states that all dogs are mammals. The second premise states that some mammals are cats. From these two premises, we can conclude that some dogs must also be cats.

In contrast, an insufficient question is one that does not provide enough information to answer the question correctly.

Here is an example of an insufficient question from the Reading Comprehension section of the LSAT:

The author argues that the government should provide free healthcare to all citizens.

What is the author's main reason for supporting this view?

This question is insufficient because it does not provide any information about the author's reasons for supporting free healthcare. The passage may contain several different reasons, and without more information, it is impossible to determine which reason is the main one.

What Type of LSAT Questions Are The Hardest?

The hardest type of LSAT question varies from person to person, depending on their strengths and weaknesses. However, some types of questions are generally considered to be more difficult than others. In the Logical Reasoning section, difficult questions often involve complex arguments with multiple premises and conclusions. They may also require you to identify subtle flaws in the argument or to make inferences that are not explicitly stated.

In the Reading Comprehension section, difficult questions often involve dense or technical passages. They may also require you to understand the author's tone or purpose, or to draw inferences that are not explicitly stated. In the Analytical Reasoning section, difficult questions often involve complex rules or relationships. They may also require you to solve multiple puzzles simultaneously or to make inferences that are not explicitly stated. Ultimately, the best way to prepare for the LSAT is to practice a variety of question types and to develop strong critical thinking and reasoning skills.

Why This LSAT-Test Certification Exam?

The LSAT is a standardized test that is required for admission to law school in the United States, Canada, and Australia. The LSAT is designed to assess your critical thinking, analytical reasoning, and reading comprehension skills. These skills are essential for success in law school and in the legal profession.

There are many reasons why you should consider taking the LSAT:

To improve your chances of getting into law school. The LSAT is a major factor in law school admissions decisions. A high LSAT score can help you stand out from other applicants and increase your chances of getting into your top choice law school.

To prepare for the rigors of law school. The LSAT is a challenging test, but it is also a valuable learning experience. By preparing for the LSAT, you will develop the skills that you need to succeed in law school and in the legal profession.
To gain a competitive advantage in the job market. A high LSAT score can also be beneficial in the job market. Employers know that LSAT takers have strong critical thinking, analytical reasoning, and reading comprehension skills. These skills are highly valued in many different industries.

If you are planning to apply to law school, or if you are simply interested in improving your critical thinking and reasoning skills, then you should consider taking the LSAT.

What You’ll Learn With the DumpsArena LSAT-Test Exam Dumps?

The DumpsArena LSAT-Test exam dumps provide you with a comprehensive overview of the LSAT and the skills that you need to succeed on the exam. With the DumpsArena LSAT-Test exam dumps, you will learn about:

The different types of LSAT questions. The LSAT consists of three main types of questions: Logical Reasoning, Reading Comprehension, and Analytical Reasoning. The DumpsArena LSAT-Test exam dumps will provide you with practice questions for each type of question, so that you can become familiar with the format and content of the exam.
The strategies for answering LSAT questions. There are specific strategies that you can use to answer LSAT questions correctly. The DumpsArena LSAT-Test exam dumps will teach you these strategies, so that you can maximize your score on the exam.
The time management skills that you need to succeed on the LSAT. The LSAT is a timed exam, so it is important to be able to manage your time wisely. The Dumps Arena LSAT-Test exam dumps will provide you with tips and strategies for managing your time effectively.

In addition to the above, the DumpsArena LSAT-Test exam dumps also include:

Full-length practice tests. The DumpsArena LSAT-Test exam dumps include several full-length practice tests, so that you can get a feel for the actual exam and practice your skills.
Detailed answer explanations. The DumpsArena LSAT-Test exam dumps include detailed answer explanations for all of the practice questions, so that you can learn from your mistakes and improve your understanding of the material.

With the DumpsArena LSAT-Test exam dumps, you will have everything you need to prepare for and succeed on the LSAT.

FAQs

What is the LSAT?

What is the format of the LSAT?

The LSAT consists of three main sections: Logical Reasoning, Reading Comprehension, and Analytical Reasoning. Each section contains 25-27 questions, and you have 35 minutes to complete each section.

What is a good LSAT score?

The average LSAT score is 150. A score of 160 or higher is considered to be good, and a score of 170 or higher is considered to be excellent.

How can I prepare for the LSAT?

There are many ways to prepare for the LSAT. You can take a prep course, study on your own, or use a combination of both methods. There are also many resources available online and in libraries that can help you prepare for the LSAT.

What should I do if I don't do well on the LSAT?

If you don't do well on the LSAT, don't give up. There are many things you can do to improve your score. You can retake the LSAT, take a prep course, or work with a tutor. You can also try to improve your critical thinking, analytical reasoning, and reading comprehension skills.

Final Thoughts

The LSAT is a challenging exam, but it is also an important one. A good LSAT score can help you get into your top choice law school and increase your chances of success in law school and in the legal profession. If you are planning to take the LSAT, it is important to start preparing early. There are many resources available to help you prepare for the LSAT, so take advantage of them. With hard work and dedication, you can achieve a high LSAT score and reach your goals.

Here are a few final thoughts to keep in mind as you prepare for the LSAT:

Believe in yourself. You can achieve anything you set your mind to, including getting a high LSAT score.
Work hard. There is no substitute for hard work. The more you prepare for the LSAT, the better you will do on the exam.
Don't give up. If you don't do well on the LSAT the first time, don't give up. You can retake the exam and improve your score.

Good luck with your LSAT preparation!

Law School Admission Test: Logical

Reasoning, Reading Comprehension, Analytical ``Reasoning

Test Prep LSAT-Test

Version Demo

Total Demo Questions: 20

Total Premium Questions: 746

Buy Premium PDF: https://dumpsarena.com/test-prep-dumps/lsat-test/

Topic Break Down

Topic No. of Questions

Topic 1, Logical Reasoning 430

Topic 2, Reading Comprehension 256

Topic 3, Analytical Reasoning 60

Total 746

QUESTION NO: 1

The organizer of a reading club will select at least five and at most six works from a group of nine works. The group consists of three French novels, three Russian novels, two French plays, and one Russian play. The organizer's selection of works must conform to the following requirements: No more than four French works are selected. At least three but no more than four novels are selected. At least as many French novels as Russian novels are selected. If both French plays are selected, then the Russian play is not selected.

The organizer must at least select

A. one French novel and one French play

B. one French novel and one Russian play

C. one Russian novel and one French play

D. two French novels

E. two Russian novels

Explanation:

The very appearance of this question might have suggested to you, at the outset, that there’s at least one fact about the selection process that is inferable from the rules alone. But whether you worked it out up front or now, how come? Because to choose a single French novel would restrict us to a single Russian novel (Rule 3), and that plus Rule 4 would ensure that we could never meet our quota of five works mandated in the opening ¶. At most we’d be restricted to four: the French novel, the Russian novel, and two plays. In order to meet the requirement of five works minimum, we must choose at least two French novels at all times. And if you look back over the first three questions, we’ve done just that all along.

QUESTION NO: 2

A recent national study of the trash discarded in several representative areas confirmed that plastics constitute a smaller proportion of all trash than paper products do, whether the trash is measured by weight or by volume. The damage that a given weight or volume of trash does to the environment is roughly the same whether the trash consists of plastics or paper products. Contrary to popular opinion, therefore, the current use of plastics actually does less harm to the environment nationwide than that of paper products. The main conclusion of the argument is that

A. plastics constitute a smaller proportion of the nation's total trash than do paper products

B. the ratio of weight to volume is the same for plastic trash as it is for paper trash

C. popular opinion regards the use of paper products as less harmful to the environment than the use of products made from plastic

D. contrary to popular opinion, a shift away from the use of paper products to the use of plastics would benefit the environment nationwide

E. at this time more harm is being done to the environment nationwide by the use of paper than by the use of plastics

Explanation:

Any prediction of the right answer has to follow from the blatant Conclusion Keyword “Therefore.” The statement that follows, that plastics are currently less environmentally harmful than paper, is simply and properly rewritten by option [at this time more harm is being done to…]. Option [plastics constitute a smaller proportion of…] is cited in the stimulus’s first sentence as a piece of evidence. Option [the ratio of weight to volume is…] raises an issue (weight vs. volume) that the stimulus’s first two sentences discard as irrelevant. The author’s aim is to use the truth to counter public opinion, not to persuade us of it [popular opinion regards the use of…]. And option [contrary to popular opinion, a shift away from…] concern with benefits and alternative behaviors couldn’t be further removed from the scope of the argument.

QUESTION NO: 3

In our solar system only one of the nine planets— Earth—qualifies as fit to sustain life. Nonetheless, using this ratio, and considering the astonishingly large number of planetary systems in the universe, we must conclude that the number of planets fit to sustain some form of life is extremely large. The argument is questionable because it presumes which one of the following without providing justification?

A. If a planet is Earth like, then life will arise on it.

B. Our solar system is similar to many other planetary systems in the universe.

C. The conditions necessary for life to begin are well understood.

D. Life similar to Earth's could evolve under conditions very different from those on Earth.

E. Most other planetary systems in the universe have nine planets.

Explanation:

The stem tells us the argument is flawed, and even tells us the source of the problem: an unjustified assumption. So we’ll bring all of our strategies for Flaw and Assumption questions to bear on the problem. The author concludes that there are a lot of planets able to sustain life, based on the fact that one out of the nine planets in our solar system sustains life, and there are a huge number of planetary systems in the universe. If, similar to our system, roughly one planet in each other system can sustain life, then this makes sense — but what if this is not the case? What if the same ratio doesn’t obtain out there in the far reaches of the universe? Then the conclusion would be unsupported. For the conclusion to stand, our solar system must be similar to many other systems (at least in this respect), and no evidence is provided to that effect.

QUESTION NO: 4

The okapi, a forest mammal of central Africa, has presented zoologists with a number of difficult questions since they first learned of its existence in 1900. The first was how to classify it. Because it was horse like in dimension, and bore patches of striped hide similar to a zebra's (a relative of the horse), zoologists first classified it as a member of the horse family. But further studies showed that, despite okapis' coloration and short necks, their closest relatives were giraffes. The okapi's rightful place within the giraffe family is confirmed by its skin-covered horns (in males), two-lobed canine teeth, and long prehensile tongue.

The next question was the size of the okapi population. Because okapis were infrequently captured by hunters, some zoologists believed that they were rare; however, others theorized that their habits simply kept them out of sight. It was not until 1985, when zoologists started tracking okapis by affixing collars equipped with radio transmitters to briefly captured specimens, that reliable information about okapi numbers and habits began to be collected. It turns out that while okapis are not as rare as some zoologists suspected, their population is concentrated in an extremely limited chain of forestland in northeastern central Africa, surrounded by savanna. One reason for their seeming scarcity is that their coloration allows okapis to camouflage themselves even at close range. Another is that okapis do not travel in groups or with other large forest mammals, and neither frequent open riverbanks nor forage at the borders of clearings, choosing instead to keep to the forest interior. This is because okapis, unlike any other animal in the central African forest, subsist entirely on leaves: more than one hundred species of plants have been identified as part of their diet, and about twenty of these are preferred. Okapis never eat one plant to the exclusion of others; even where preferred foliage is abundant, okapis will leave much of it uneaten, choosing to move on and sample other leaves, Because of this, and because of the distribution of their food, okapis engage in individual rather than congregated foraging.

But other questions about okapi behavior arise. Why, for example, do they prefer to remain within forested areas when many of their favorite plants are found in the open border between forest and savanna? One possibility is that this is a defense against predators; another is that the okapi was pushed into the forest by competition with other large, hoofed animals, such as the bushbuck and bongo, that specialize on the forest edges and graze them more efficiently, Another question is why okapis are absent from other nearby forest regions that would seem hospitable to them Zoologists theorize that okapis are relicts of an era when forestland was scarce and that they continue to respect those borders even though available forestland has long since expanded. Which one of the following most completely and accurately expresses the main idea of the passage?

A. Information gathered by means of radio-tracking collars has finally provided answers to the questions about okapis that zoologists have been attempting to answer since they first learned of the mammal's existence.

B. Because of their physical characteristics and their infrequent capture by hunters, okapis presented zoologists with many difficult questions at the start of the twentieth century.

C. Research concerning okapis has answered some of the questions that have puzzled zoologists since their discovery, but has also raised other questions regarding their geographic concentration and feeding habits. should jump out as correct. It picks up on the fact that some okapi questions have been answered while some remains and it gets the scope right: option [Information gathered by means of radio-tracking collars…] has last five words appropriately identify the specific areas treated in the text.

D. A new way of tracking okapis using radio tracking collars reveals that their apparent scarcity is actually a result of their coloration, their feeding habits, and their geographic concentration.

E. Despite new research involving radio tracking, the questions that have puzzled zoologists about okapis since their discovery at the start of the twentieth century remain mostly unanswered.

Explanation:

This passage offers a whole lot of “ideas” – explanations, theories – about the okapi rather than one all-encompassing one. For that reason, we should expect the right answer to reflect the wide range of the author’s okapi interest. And it does. Whether you attack each choice in turn, or skim through the choices looking for something tempting,

C. should jump out as correct. It picks up on the fact that some okapi questions have been answered while some remains and it gets the scope right: option [Information gathered by means of radio-tracking collars…] has last five words appropriately identify the specific areas treated in the text.

QUESTION NO: 5

A new bank has decided to stay open only on weekends - all day Saturday and Sunday - and no other days. The bank has hired two managers (U and V), Four tellers (W,X,Y, and Z), and two operation officers (S and T), for a total of exactly eight full-time employees. No part-time employees are hired. Each employee works a complete day when working.

A manager must be on duty each day. The managers cannot work on the same day. At least two tellers must be working on the same day. W and X will not work on the same day. S and Z will only work on Saturday. No employee can work on consecutive days, but each employee must work on Saturday or Sunday.

Which one of the following must be true?

A. T always works on the same day as Y.

B. S never works on the same day as U.

C. Z never works on the same day as X.

D. If W works on Sunday, then Y always works on Saturday.

E. Only two tellers work on Saturday.

Explanation:

Since no employee can work on consecutive days, and there are four tellers, then two must work on Saturday.

QUESTION NO: 6

Experts anticipate that global atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide (CO2) will have-doubled by the end of the twenty-first century. It is known that CO2 can contribute to global warming by trapping solar energy that is being reradiated as heat from the Earth's surface. However, some research has suggested that elevated CO2 levels could enhance the photosynthetic rates of plants, resulting in a lush world of agricultural abundance, and that this CO2 fertilization effect might eventually decrease the rate of global warming. The increased vegetation in such an environment could be counted on to draw more CO, from the atmosphere. The level of CO2 would thus increase at a lower rate than many experts have predicted.

However, while a number of recent studies confirm that plant growth would be generally enhanced in an atmosphere rich inCO2, they also suggest that increased CO2 would differentially increase the growth rate of different species of plants, which could eventually result in decreased agricultural yields. Certain important crops such as corn and sugarcane that currently have higher photosynthetic efficiencies than other plants may lose that edge in an atmosphere rich in CO2. Patterson and Flint have shown that these important crops may experience yield reductions because of the increased performance of certain weeds. Such differences in growth rates between plant species could also alter ecosystem stability. Studies have shown that within rangeland regions, for example, a weedy grass grows much better with plentiful CO2 than do three other grasses. Because this weedy grass predisposes land to burning, its potential increase may lead to greater numbers of and more severe wildfires in future rangeland communities. It is clear that the CO2 fertilization effect does not guarantee the lush world of agricultural abundance that once seemed likely, but what about the potential for the increased uptake of CO2 to decrease the rate of global warming? Some studies suggest that the changes accompanying global warming will not improve the ability of terrestrial ecosystems to absorb CO2. Billings' simulation of global warming conditions in wet tundra grasslands showed that the level of CO2 actually increased.

Plant growth did increase under these conditions because of warmer temperatures and increased CO2 levels. But as the permafrost melted, more peat {accumulated dead plant material) began to decompose. This process in turn liberated more CO2 to the atmosphere. Billings estimated that if summer temperatures rose four degrees Celsius, the tundra would liberate 50 percent more CO2 than it does currently. In a warmer world, increased plant growth, which could absorb CO2 from the atmosphere, would not compensate for this rapid increase in decomposition rates. This observation is particularly important because high-latitude habitats such as the tundra are expected to experience the greatest temperature increase.

The passage suggests that the hypothesis mentioned in the first paragraph is not entirely accurate because it fails to take into account which one of the following in predicting the effects of increased vegetation on the rate of global warming?

A. Increased levels of CO2 will increase the photosynthetic rates of many species of plants.

B. Increased plant growth cannot compensate for increased rates of decomposition caused by warmer temperatures.

C. Low-latitude habitats will experience the greatest increases in temperature in an atmosphere high in CO.

D. Increased levels of CO, will change patterns of plant growth and thus will alter the distribution of peat.

E. Increases in vegetation can be counted on to draw more CO2 from the atmosphere.

Explanation:

There’s a lot of verbiage in the question stem, but the last two words are the key because they direct us to the proper. Yes, the hypothesis appears in 1, but its weakness in terms of global warming comes in 3. The “particularly important” observation that sums up the ultimate effect of CO2.

QUESTION NO: 7

Galanin is a protein found in the brain. In an experiment, rats that consistently chose to eat fatty foods when offered a choice between lean and fatty foods were found to have significantly higher concentrations of galanin in their brains than did rats that consistently chose lean over fatty foods. These facts strongly support the conclusion that galanin causes rats to crave fatty foods.

Which one of the following, if true, most supports the argument?

A. The craving for fatty foods does not invariably result in a rat's choosing those foods over lean foods.

B. The brains of the rats that consistently chose to eat fatty foods did not contain significantly more fat than did the brains of rats that consistently chose lean foods.

C. The chemical components of galanin are present in both fatty foods and lean foods.

D. The rats that preferred fatty foods had the higher concentrations of galanin in their brains before they were offered fatty foods.

E. Rats that metabolize fat less efficiently than do other rats develop high concentrations of galanin in their brains.

Explanation:

The author’s alleged cause-and-effect (galanin causes a craving for fats in rats) is based on a correlation: The rats who opted for fat had more galanin than those who opted for lean. But who’s to say that the fatty foods ingested by the former rats didn’t account for the greater amounts of galanin? The experiment would better support causation if option [The rats that preferred fatty foods…] were true and the differing galanin levels were a preexisting condition.

QUESTION NO: 8

Four boys — Fred, Juan, Marc, and Paul — and three girls— Nita, Rachel, and Trisha — will be assigned to a row of five adjacent lockers, numbered consecutively 1 through 5, arranged along a straight wall. The following conditions govern the assignment of lockers to the seven children: Each locker must be assigned to either one or two children, and each child must be assigned to exactly one locker. Each shared locker must be assigned to one girl and one boy. Juan must share a locker, but Rachel cannot share a locker. Nita's locker cannot be adjacent to Trisha's locker. Fred must be assigned to locker 3. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the children who must be among those assigned to shared lockers?

A. Fred, Juan

B. Juan, Paul

C. Juan, Marc, Paul

D. Juan, Marc, Trisha

E. Juan, Nita, Trisha

Explanation:

Piece of cake given our initial deductive work. Among those for-sure paired up are Juan (Rule 3), as well as Nita and Trisha (since we need two girls for the two sharings, and according to Rule 3, it ain’t gonna be Rachel). Who is the other boy for a shared locker? No way to tell.

QUESTION NO: 9

All of the four door cars that I've repaired have always had 8 cylinders, so all four door cars must have 8 cylinder engines.

What is the basis of this author's argument?

A. generalization

B. syllogism

C. special training

D. deduction

E. ambiguity

QUESTION NO: 10

Seven friends, Abe, Bob, Chad, Dolly, Elisa, Frank, and Gregory sit in a VIP enclosure of a stadium to watch a football match. The seats in the enclosure form a 3 x 3 matrix, i.e. 3 rows (front, middle and last) with 3 seats in each row. The following information is known:

Chad sits immediately beside Dolly Dolly sits in a row immediately behind the row in which Abe is sitting There is no one sitting on one side of Chad None of Elisa or Gregory sits immediately beside Abe Bob sits in the last row If the row in which Frank sits has only 2 persons sitting, which of the following must be true? A. Frank sits in the last row

Thus, there are 2 possible scenarios:

If A is in the middle of the front row, none of E or G can sit in the front row; thus, they would sit in the last row … (v) is at either end of the front row, only in that scenario can one of E or G also sits in the front row … (vi) Thus, we have: If A Also, in the middle row, since C has D on one side and a vacant seat on the other, C must be in the middle position. Thus, we finally have: This is all that can be deduced from the main stem.

To answer the questions, we need to use the additional information contained in each question.

B. Frank sits in the front row

C. Bob and Elisa sit beside one another

D. Bob and Frank sit beside one another

E. Elisa and Gregory sit beside one another

Explanation:

We know that the row in which Frank sits has only 2 persons sitting. Working with the options: Option [Frank sits in the last row] If F sits in the last row along with B (who is already sitting in the last row as well), there cannot be anyone else sitting in the last row; since there should be exactly 2 people in that row. Thus, A, G and E must sit in the front row, which is not possible. – False Option [Frank sits in the front row] If only F sits in the front row along with A, all among B, E and G must be in the last row.

Since there is no contradiction for B, E and G in sitting together, this seating arrangement is correct. – True Though we have got the correct answer, let us still verify why the remaining choices are incorrect Option [Bob and Elisa sit beside one another] With B, E and G sitting together, we can have different arrangements in the last row: B-E-G or B-G-E or G-B-E, etc. Thus, B and E may or may not sit beside one another. Note that this is a 'must be true question,' not a 'may be true' question. – False Option [Bob and Frank sit beside one another] Since F sits in the front row and B is in the last row, they cannot sit beside one another. – False Option [Elisa and Gregory sit beside one another] From the same reasoning used for 'option C,' E and G may or may not sit beside one another. So, this option is not necessarily be true. – False

General Let us name the people Abe, Bob, Chad, Dolly, Elisa, Frank, and Gregory as A, B, C, D, E, F, and G, respectively. We can see that there are 3 × 3 = 9 seats, but there are only 7 people. Thus, the only possible way of distributing the 7 people across the 3 rows is that 2 rows would have 2 members each and one row would have 3 members. However, the exact number of people in a particular row is not yet known and further analysis of the statements needs to be done.

1st statement: C and D sit beside each other … (i)

3rd statement: The row in which C and D are sitting, has exactly 2 people sitting in it (since there is no one sitting on the other side of C) … (ii)

2nd statement: Since D sits in the row just behind A's row, the row where D (and C) sits must be either the middle or the last row

5th statement: Since B sits in the last row and the row where C and D sits has only 2 people, C and D must be in the middle row … (iii) Thus, it also follows that A must be in the front row … (iv)

4th statement: We know that neither E nor G sits beside

A. Thus, there are 2 possible scenarios: If A is in the middle of the front row, none of E or G can sit in the front row; thus, they would sit in the last row … (v) is at either end of the front row, only in that scenario can one of E or G also sits in the front row … (vi)

If A Thus, we have: Also, in the middle row, since C has D on one side and a vacant seat on the other, C must be in the middle position. Thus, we finally have: This is all that can be deduced from the main stem. To answer the questions, we need to use the additional information contained in each question.

QUESTION NO: 11

A test that examines people on their memory capacity for spatial layouts has placed Jason in the top 1 percentile of all testtakers. We can conclude from this that his memory capacity for things that do not involve spatial layouts will be below average. The conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

A. Jason tried hard to remember spatial layouts.

B. Jason has a greater proclivity to remember spatial layouts than most people.

C. It is possible for Jason to improve, through practice and effort, his memory capacity for things that do not involve spatial layouts.

D. The total memory capacity of the human brain is fixed and equal for all people.

E. Some people have a greater memory capacity than others.

Explanation:

Argument construction A test that examines people on their memory capacity for spatial layouts has placed Jason in the top 1 percentile of all test takers. We can conclude from this that his memory capacity for things that do not involve spatial layouts will be below average.

The structure of the argument is: Premise: Jason is in the top 1 percentile of all people in his memory capacity for spatial layouts. This means, his 'memory capacity for spatial layouts' (called Ms henceforth for easier reference) is better than 99% of all test-takers. In other words, it is outstanding! Conclusion: We can conclude from this that his memory capacity for things that do not involve spatial layouts (called MO – 'o' for other things - henceforth for easier reference) will be below average. Looking at this argument, we see a gap between the premise and conclusion – being outstanding in MS does not necessarily guarantee that one's MO will be below average.

This is the loophole that the correct answer choice will have to plug. The correct answer choice will be one which, when added to the argument's premise, would produce a conclusive argument, that is, an argument with no gaps in its support for the conclusion. Let us analyze the options one by one. Answer choices explanation [Jason tried hard to remember spatial layouts.] This option is incorrect. When we take this option statement as a premise and combine it with the premise of the argument, does the conclusion logically follow? No. This option statement only provides a plausible reason for why Jason's MS is outstanding. It does not offer any support for the conclusion, which is about his MO.

[Jason has a greater proclivity to remember spatial layouts than most people.] This option is incorrect. The reasons are similar to the ones discussed in the Option above. [It is possible for Jason to improve, through practice and effort, his memory capacity for things that do not involve spatial layouts.] This option is incorrect. The premise in the argument is that Jason's MS is outstanding. The premise offered by this option statement is that it is possible for Jason (through practice and effort) to improve his MO. When these two premises are combined, the conclusion that Jason's MO is below-average does not logically follow. In fact, one wonders how, when it is possible to improve one's MO, can such a definite declaration as the argument's conclusion be made.

[The total memory capacity of the human brain is fixed and equal for all people.] This option is correct. According to this option statement, the total memory capacity, M, is equal for all people. Also, M is a fixed number. It cannot be increased or decreased. Now, If Jason has higher MS than most people, then it does follow that his MO is lower than most people. Therefore, when this option statement is combined with the argument's premise, there is no gap left in the argument and the conclusion follows logically.

[Some people have a greater memory capacity than others.] This option is incorrect. If some people have a greater (total) memory capacity than others, then it could be possible that Jason has both an outstanding MS and an outstanding MO, therefore, ending up with an outstanding total memory capacity M as compared to most people. Therefore, when this option statement is combined with the premise, the conclusion does not logically follow.

QUESTION NO: 12

Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. Together with her husband, Pierre, she discovered radium, an element widely used for treating cancer, and studied uranium and other radioactive substances. Pierre and Marie's amicable collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the atom. Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a professor of physics. At the early age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality.

Her great exuberance for learning prompted her to continue with her studies after high school. She became disgruntled, however, when she learned that the university in Warsaw was closed to women. Determined to receive a higher education, she defiantly left Poland and in 1891 entered the Sorbonne, a French university, where she earned her master's degree and doctorate in physics. Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the greatest scientists of her day, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were married in 1895 and spent many productive years working together in the physics laboratory.

A short time after they discovered radium, Pierre was killed by a horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish. Despondently she recalled their close relationship and the joy that they had shared in scientific research. The fact that she had two young daughters to raise by herself greatly increased her distress. Curie's feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to succeed her husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first woman to be given a professorship at the world-famous university. In 1911 she received the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to radium, she never became disillusioned about her work. Regardless of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to science and to revealing the mysteries of the physical world. Marie _______________ by leaving Poland and traveling to France to enter the Sorbonne.

A. challenged authority

B. showed intelligence

C. behaved

D. was distressed

E. answer not available in article

QUESTION NO: 13

The Trojan War is one of the most famous wars in history. It is well known for the ten year duration, for the heroism of a number of legendary characters, and for the Trojan horse. What may not be familiar, however, is the story of how the war began. According to Greek myth, the strife between the Trojans and the Greeks started at the wedding of Peleus, King of Thessaly, and Thetis, a sea nymph. All of the gods and goddesses had been invited to the wedding celebration in Troy except Eris, goddesses of discord. She had been omitted from the guest list because her presence always embroiled mortals and immortals alike in conflict.

To take revenge on those who had slighted her, Eris decided to cause a skirmish. Into the middle of the banquet hall, she threw a golden apple marked “for the most beautiful.” All of the goddesses began to haggle over who should possess it. The gods and goddesses reached a stalemate when the choice was narrowed to Hera, Athena, and Aphrodite. Someone was needed to settle the controversy by picking a winner. The job eventually fell to Paris, son of King Priam of Troy, who was said to be a good judge of beauty. Paris did not have an easy job. Each goddess, eager to win the golden apple, tried aggressively to bribe him. “I'll grant you vast kingdoms to rule,“ promised Hera. “Vast kingdoms are nothing in comparison with my gift,” contradicted Athena.

“Choose me and I'll see that you win victory and fame in war.” Aphrodite outdid her adversaries, however. She won the golden apple by offering Helen, Zeus' daughter and the most beautiful mortal, to Paris. Paris, anxious to claim Helen, set off for Sparta in Greece. Although Paris learned that Helen was married, he accepted the hospitality of her husband, King Menelasu of Sparta, anyway. Therefore, Menelaus was outraged for a number of reasons when Paris departed, taking Helen and much of the king's wealth back to Troy. Menelaus collected his loyal forces and set sail for Troy to begin the war to reclaim Helen. Eris was known for ________________ both mortals and immortals.

A. scheming against

B. involving in conflict

C. feeling hostile toward

D. ignoring

E. comforting

QUESTION NO: 14

Maria: Thomas Edison was one of the most productive inventors of his time, perhaps of all time. His contributions significantly shaped the development of modern lighting and communication systems. Yet he had only a few months of formal schooling. Therefore, you do not need a formal education to make crucial contributions to technological advancement. Frank: That is definitely not true anymore. Since Edison's day there have been many new developments in technology; to make crucial contributions today you need much more extensive technical knowledge than was needed then. Frank's reasoning in his response to Maria is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it

A. fails to address the possibility that technical knowledge may be acquired without formal education

B. does not consider whether there have been improvements in formal education since Edison's day

C. relies on using the term "crucial" differently from the way Maria used it

D. presumes that no other inventor of Edison's time could have been as productive as Edison

E. fails to criticize or question any of Maria's statements about Edison

Explanation:

The stem indicates that Frank’s reasoning goes off the rails, so let’s keep our eye out for the classic flaws. First, Maria’s point: Edison contributed greatly in the technological arena with little formal schooling, so evidently formal education is not required to make such contributions. Seems reasonable. But Frank says that’s not true anymore; contributing to today’s technological environment requires lots more technical knowledge than it did in Edison’s day. That may make sense, if not for the scope shift between “formal schooling” and “technical knowledge.” Frank’s conclusion regarding formal education (“that’s not true” means “you do need formal education to contribute”) is derived from evidence about the need for technical knowledge. But who says technical knowledge requires formal education? Certainly not Frank.

QUESTION NO: 15

Studies have shown that, contrary to popular belief, middle-aged people have more fear of dying than do elderly people. Each of the following, if true, contributes to an explanation of the phenomenon shown by the studies EXCEPT:

A. The longer one lives, the more likely it is that one has come to terms with dying.

B. Middle-aged people have more people dependent upon them than people of any other age group.

C. Many people who suffer from depression first become depressed in middle age.

D. The longer one lives, the more imperturbable one becomes.

E. Middle-aged people have a more acute sense of their own mortality than do people of any other age group.

Explanation:

There are four good explanations for the phenomenon shown by the studies in this argument, so we know that we will have to understand the phenomenon and then jump straight to the answer choices. Just one short sentence to deal with: According to studies, middle-aged people fear dying more than elderly people do. (The phrase “. . . contrary to popular belief” also lets us know that most people think the opposite is true, but that shouldn’t concern us since we’re interested only in the phenomenon itself, not what people believe about it.) Each wrong choice will make it easier to understand why middleaged folks are more afraid to die than are old people, while the correct choice will not address this question, most likely because it deviates from the scope. And so it does: As there is no stated clear connection between depression and fearing death, the fact that depression often sets in during middle age does nothing to explain the phenomenon described. Depression, while perhaps seemingly relevant at first glance, is actually at least one step removed from the scope here.

QUESTION NO: 16

Passage

[1] The September 1906 edition of Cosmopolitan magazine recounts a story once told of an old Native American chieftain. [2] The chieftain was given a tour of the modern city of New York. [3] On this excursion, he saw the soaring heights of the grand skyscrapers and the majesty of the Brooklyn Bridge. [4] He observed the comfortable masses gathered in amusement at the circus and the poor huddled in tenements. [5] Upon the completion of the chieftain's journey, several Christian men asked him, "What is the most surprising thing you have seen?" The chieftain replied slowly with three words: "little children working."

[6] Although the widespread presence of laboring children may have surprised the chieftain at the turn of the 20th century, this sight was common in the United States at the time. [7] From the Industrial Revolution through the 1930s was a period in which children worked in a wide variety of occupations. [8] Now, nearly 110 years after the story of the chieftain was told, the overt presence of widespread child labor in New York or any other American city no longer exists. [9] The move away from engaging children in economically productive labor occurred within the last 100 years. [10] As numerous authors on the subject have remarked, "Children have always worked." [11] In the 18th century, the arrival of a newborn to a rural family was viewed by the parents as a future beneficial laborer and an insurance policy for old age. [12] At an age as young as 5, a child was expected to help with farm work and other household chores. [13] The agrarian lifestyle common in America required large quantities of hard work, whether it was planting crops, feeding chickens, or mending fences. [14] Large families with less work than children would often send children to another household that could employ them as a maid, servant, or plowboy. [15] Most families simply could not afford the costs of raising a child from birth to adulthood without some compensating labor.

[16] One of the authors who noted that "children have always worked" is Walter Trattner. [17] During early human history when tribes wandered the land, children participated in the hunting and fishing. [18] When these groups separated into families, children continued to work by caring for livestock and crops. [19] The medieval guild system introduced children to the trades. [20] The subsequent advance of capitalism created new social pressures. [21] For example, in 1575, England provided for the use of public money to employ children in order to "accustom them to labor" and "afford a prophylactic against vagabonds and paupers." [22] An Englishman stated, with regret, that "a quarter of the mass of mankind are children, males and females under seven years old, from whom little labor is to be expected." [23] This statement was consistent with the Puritan belief that put work at the center of a moral life. [24] This belief shaped a citizenry that grew to praise work and scorn idleness. [25] The growth of the Industrial Revolution and manufacturing, however, provided the greatest opportunity for society to avoid the perceived problem of the idle child. [26] Now that more work was less complex because of the introduction of machines, children had more potential job opportunities. [27] For example, one industrialist in 1790 proposed building textile factories around London to employ children to "prevent the habitual idleness and degeneracy" that were destroying the community. [28] With the advances in machinery, not only could society avoid the issue of unproductive children, but also the children themselves could easily create productive output with only their rudimentary skills. [29] Similarly, in America, productive outlets were sought for children. [30] Colonial laws modeled after British laws sought to prevent children from becoming a burden on society. [31] At the age of 13, orphan boys were sent to apprentice in a trade while orphan girls were sent into domestic work. [32] Generally, children, except those of Northern merchants and Southern plantation owners, were expected to be prepared for gainful employment. [33] In other locations, the primary motivation in employing children was not about preventing their idleness but rather about satisfying commercial interests and the desire to settle the vast American continent. [34] Regardless of the motivation, a successful childhood was seen as one that developed the child's financially productive capacity. The author mentions the story of the chieftain published in Cosmopolitan magazine primarily in order to

A. demonstrate that New York encouraged child labor more than other cities of America

B. justify that child labor was not as prominent in England as it was in America

C. bring a counterpoint between the majestic landscape of New York and the poverty that existed

D. distinguish between the abundance of wealth possessed by the masses and the poverty of those living in tenements

E. emphasize that child labor was prevalent in America in the beginning of the 20th century

Explanation:

The context in which the anecdote has been used gives clues to answer the question. The line after the chieftain's remark says that "the widespread presence of laboring children may have surprised the chieftain at the turn of the 20th century, this sight was common in the United States at the time." Hence, the purpose of the statement is to show that child labor was common in the United States at that time. Option [demonstrate that New York encouraged child labor…] is incorrect because the comparison of child labor in New York with other cities of America is not implied.

Option [justify that child labor was not as prominent…] is incorrect because the chieftain's comment does not show any correlation of child labor in England and America. Option [justify that child labor was not as prominent…] is incorrect because the comment of the chieftain is strictly towards child labor and does not concern the city and its landscape. Option [distinguish between the abundance of wealth possessed…] is incorrect because the comment shows a surprise due to the children laboring. It was unrelated to the population and living conditions in the rest of New York. Option [emphasize that child labor was prevalent in America…] is correct because it appropriately conveys that child labor, at that time, was common in the United States.

QUESTION NO: 17

By refusing to ban smoking in restaurants, the city council has put the financial wellbeing of restaurant owners above the health of the citizens of this city. No doubt, the council would support the restaurants if they decided to use asbestos tablecloths and to barbecue using radioactivity. These devices would be no more risky. The author of this paragraph makes her case by arguing.

A. from experience

B. from example

C. by authority

D. from observation

E. from analogy

Explanation:

The passage makes its point by analogy, comparing the dangers of smoking to the dangers of asbestos and radioactivity.

QUESTION NO: 18

While historians once propagated the myth that Africans who were brought to the New World as slaves contributed little of value but their labor, a recent study by Amelia Wallace Vernon helps to dispel this notion by showing that Africans introduced rice and the methods of cultivating it into what is now the United States in the early eighteenth century. She uncovered, for example, an 1876 document that details that in 1718 starving French settlers instructed the captain of a slave ship bound for Africa to trade for 400 Africans including some "who know how to cultivate rice." This discovery is especially compelling because the introduction of rice into what is now the United States had previously been attributed to French Acadians, who did not arrive until the 1760s. Vernon interviewed elderly African Americans who helped her discover the locations where until about 1920 their forebears had cultivated rice. At the heart of Vernon's research is the question of why, in an economy dedicated to maximizing cotton production, African Americans grew rice. She proposes two intriguing answers, depending on whether the time is before or after the end of slavery. During the period of slavery, plantation owners also ate rice and therefore tolerated or demanded its "after-hours" cultivation on patches of land not suited to cotton. In addition, growing the rice gave the slaves some relief from a system of regimented labor under a field supervisor, in that they were left alone to work independently.

After the abolition of slavery, however, rice cultivation is more difficult to explain: African Americans had acquired a preference for eating corn, there was no market for the small amounts of rice they produced, and under the tenant system – in which farmers surrendered a portion of their crops to the owners of the land they farmed – owners wanted only cotton as payment. The labor required to transform unused land to productive ground would thus seem completely out of proportion to the reward – except that, according to Vernon, the transforming of the land itself was the point.

Vernon suggests that these African Americans did not transform the land as a means to an end, but rather as an end in itself. In other words, they did not transform the land in order to grow rice – for the resulting rice was scarcely worth the effort required to clear the land- – but instead transformed the land because they viewed land as an extension of self and home and so wished to nurture it and make it their own. In addition to this cultural explanation, Vernon speculates that rice cultivation might also have been a political act, a next step after the emancipation of the slaves: the symbolic claiming of plantation land that the U.S. government had promised but failed to parcel off and deed to newly freed African Americans.

Which one of the following most completely and accurately describes the author's attitude toward Vernon's study?

A. respectful of its author and skeptical toward its theories

B. admiring of its accomplishments and generally receptive to its theories

C. appreciative of the effort it required and neutral toward its theories

D. enthusiastic about its goals but skeptical of its theories

E. accepting of its author's motives but overtly dismissive of its theories

Explanation:

To say one is “intrigued” means that one is interested, willing to listen. “Receptive” is therefore a perfect description here of the author’s attitude toward Vernon’s theories. Calling Vernon’s discovery “compelling” also matches up well with “admiring of its accomplishments.”

QUESTION NO: 19

How can I write any of the essays when there are so many essays to be written?

In terms of its logical structure, the remark above most closely resembles which one of the following?

A. How can he buy a new car when he is already deeply in debt?

B. How can she increase her collection of books when it is already so large?

C. How can he iron any of his shirts when he has so many shirts that need ironing?

D. How can she visit London and Paris when she has not yet visited New York and Washington?

E. How can they raise horses when they already raise so many cows?

Explanation:

In each case, the verb ("iron".."need ironing";"write".."to be written") is repeated, while the adjective ("many") modifies the repeated noun.

QUESTION NO: 20

We can learn about the living conditions of a vanished culture by examining its language. Thus, it is likely that the people who spoke Proto-Indo-European, the language from which all IndoEuropean languages descended, lived in a cold climate, isolated from ocean or sea, because Proto-Indo-European lacks a word for "sea," yet contains words for "winter," "snow," and "wolf." Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

A. A word meaning "fish" was used by the people who spoke Proto-Indo-European

B. Some languages lack words for prominent elements of the environments of their speakers.

C. There are no known languages today that lack a word for "sea."

D. Proto-Indo-European possesses words for "heat."

E. The people who spoke Proto-Indo-European were nomadic

Explanation:

Remember, on Weaken questions, the best strategy is usually to attack any underlying assumption that the author is making.

This author is concluding that the P-I-E people lived in a cold climate, isolated from the ocean or sea. What evidence does the author use? That the P-I-E language did not have a word for “sea,” but did have words for “winter,” “snow,” and “wolf.” Can you identify an assumption that would link the evidence and conclusion? The author assumes that languages have words for elements of their culture that are present (e.g. snow) and don’t have words for elements that are not present (e.g.,sea). So to most effectively weaken this argument, just look for an answer choice that attacks this underlying assumption. Option [Some languages lack words for prominent…]. does precisely that by saying that some languages lack words for prominent elements of the environments of their speakers. In other words, you could have an ocean (certainly a prominent element) without having a word for it. If this were true, it would undermine the author’s conclusion that the P-I-E people were isolated from the sea just because their language contained no word for it. Maybe they just never bothered to get around to making up the word.